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EconomicsTime value of money Intermediate 14 min read

Choosing the discount rate

The discount rate is the yearly rate at which the future cash flows of a project (the money coming in and going out) are brought back to the date of the valuation. In other words, we find what each future sum is worth on that date. The rate is the lowest return that an investor asks for an investment of a given risk. It is what the investor could earn by putting the same money into the best available alternative of similar risk. So it is also called the required return, or the cost of capital for the project.

Why it matters

The rate is one of the most influential assumptions in an economic appraisal. Take the project used in the examples of this library. Going from 10% to 12% cuts its net present value (NPV, the worth of the project in today's money) by 15%. When we choose between options, the rate can even change the winner. A rate that is too low makes a company put money into projects that do not earn the cost of their capital. A rate that is too high makes it reject good projects, especially long ones whose income comes late.

Quick refresher

  • The discount rate is the price of money for an investor. It is the lowest return that a project must give, so that investing in it is no worse than an alternative of similar risk.
  • The lower limit of the rate is the company's cost of capital. This is usually the weighted average cost of its own money (equity) and borrowed money (debt), called WACC. Retained earnings (profit kept in the company) are not free either: the shareholders have an alternative.
  • Equity costs more than debt: shareholders get what is left after the lenders are paid, and they carry more risk. Interest on debt reduces the income tax, so WACC uses the cost of debt after tax.
  • The hurdle rate (the lowest return that a company accepts for a project) is a practical decision of the company. It is the cost of capital with a margin, because money and people are limited. Sometimes it also has extra premiums for country risk or the type of project.
  • The NPV of long projects depends strongly on the rate. For the project of the examples, lowering the rate from 10% to 8% raises the NPV by 17%, and raising it to 12% lowers it by 15%. A premium on the rate “penalises” distant flows more than near ones.
  • The rate and the flow must be of the same kind: a real rate (inflation taken out) for constant prices, a nominal rate (inflation included) for money of the day; WACC for a project flow without financing; the currency of the rate is the currency of the flow.
Key relationships
WACC=EV re+DV rd (1−T)\mathrm{WACC} = \dfrac{E}{V}\,r_e + \dfrac{D}{V}\,r_d\,(1 - T)

weighted average cost of capital; V=E+DV = E + D

1+r=1+i1+f1 + r = \dfrac{1 + i}{1 + f}

the real rate rr from the nominal rate ii and the inflation rate ff

(1+i1+i+Δ)t\left(\dfrac{1 + i}{1 + i + \Delta}\right)^{t}

the share of the present value of a flow tt years ahead that is left after a premium Δ\Delta is added to the rate

re=rf+β (rm−rf)r_e = r_f + \beta\,(r_m - r_f)

cost of equity by the CAPM model

Common pitfalls
  • Treating retained earnings as “free” money.
  • Subtracting loan interest from the project flow and also discounting it at WACC. This counts the cost of debt twice.
  • Discounting a flow in constant prices at a nominal WACC calculated from market rates.
  • Allowing for technical risk (reserves, a dry well) twice: in the probabilities and in a premium on the rate.
  • Thinking that a high rate is “cautious”. It understates the present value of late costs, such as abandonment (closing down the field at the end of its life).

After this lesson you can

  • explain the three ideas that set the rate: the cost of raising capital, the return of the best alternative, and risk
  • calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) and convert it from nominal to real terms
  • explain how companies set a hurdle rate, and when different rates for different projects are justified
  • estimate how much the NPV and the choice between options depend on the rate, and explain why a premium added to the rate hits distant flows hardest
  • match the rate to the cash flow: constant or nominal prices, project or shareholder cash flow, currency and period

What the discount rate expresses

When we discount the cash flow of a project at a rate ii, we compare the project with another way to use the same money: investing it at ii a year. If the NPV at this rate is positive, the project earns more than ii. If it is negative, the project earns less (Net present value (NPV)). So the question “which rate should we take?” is really the question “what is money worth to the one who invests it?” Three ideas shape the answer.

  • The cost of raising capital. A company's money belongs to its shareholders and its lenders, and every unit of it has a price. Lenders get interest. Shareholders get dividends (a share of the profit paid out) and a rising share price. A project that earns less than this price, the cost of capital, makes the owners poorer.
  • Opportunity cost. Money, specialists and drilling rigs are limited. By putting them into one project, the company gives up another. The return of the best project that is turned down is the price of the choice.
  • Risk. The less predictable the result of an investment, the higher the return that the investor asks for. The starting point is the return on safe government bonds in the same currency (the risk-free rate). For the risk on top of that, investors ask for an extra return, called a premium.

State the rate together with the period and the kind of money. “10% a year, real” is a rate for a cash flow in constant prices (real terms, with inflation taken out) and with yearly amounts. The lesson Inflation: nominal and real money shows how the same rate looks in nominal money (the money of each year).

Cost of capital: equity and debt

A company pays for its investments from two sources. Equity is the money of the shareholders: what they paid in when the shares were issued, plus the profit of past years that was left in the company. There is no contract to pay it back. But a shareholder always has a choice: keep the shares, or sell them and put the money somewhere else. A shareholder stays only as long as the company is expected to give at least as much as the money would earn elsewhere at the same risk. The company gives it as dividends and as a rising share price. This expected return is called the cost of equity (rer_e). A company that does not provide it finds it harder to raise new money from shareholders.

Debt means bank loans and bonds. Interest and repayment are a duty under a contract, whatever the success of the project. The cost of debt (rdr_d) is the full price of new borrowing: the interest rate together with fees, converted into a yearly rate. What matters is the price at which the company can borrow now, not the rate on old loans. In many tax systems, interest reduces the taxable profit. So debt in fact costs less: rd(1−T)r_d(1 - T), where TT is the income tax rate.

Equity costs more than debt. Lenders are paid first and under a contract. Shareholders get what is left, so their risk is higher. But cheap debt cannot replace all the equity. The larger the share of debt (it is called gearing, or leverage), the more fixed payments there are. Then the risk grows for both lenders and shareholders, and both rates rise. The weighted average cost of capital gives the average price of money for a company.

Weighted average cost of capital (WACC)
WACC=EV re+DV rd (1−T),V=E+D\mathrm{WACC} = \frac{E}{V}\,r_e + \frac{D}{V}\,r_d\,(1 - T), \qquad V = E + D
where:
  • WACC\mathrm{WACC}weighted average cost of capital, fraction per year
  • EEmarket value of equity (market capitalisation: what the shares of the company are worth on the stock market), US$ million
  • DDmarket value of debt, US$ million
  • rer_ecost of equity: the return that the shareholders expect, fraction per year
  • rdr_dcost of debt before tax: the rate at which the company can borrow now, fraction per year
  • TTincome tax rate; interest on debt reduces the taxable profit, fraction

Units: the rates are fractions per year; EE and DD are in the same currency

Holds when
  • The weights are market or target shares of capital, not book (accounting) shares.
  • The project has a risk similar to the average of the company. A project that is clearly more or less risky needs its own rate.
  • The rate is applied to the project flow after tax, without loans, interest and repayment of debt. The cost of debt is already in the rate itself.
  • The tax saving on interest arises only if the company has taxable profit and the interest may be deducted.
  • All the rates are of one kind: usually nominal and in one currency, like market rates.

WACC is the return that an average project of the company must bring to pay both the lenders and the shareholders. Take a project of the usual risk for the company. If its internal rate of return (IRR, the yearly return that the project itself earns) is below WACC, it reduces the value of the company, even if it brings an accounting profit.

Worked exampleWeighted average cost of capital and the real rate
Given (assumed data)
Share of equity E/VE/V
70%
Cost of equity rer_e
16% (nominal, in dollars)
Share of debt D/VD/V
30%
Cost of debt before tax rdr_d
8% (nominal, in dollars)
Income tax rate TT
20%, as in the illustrative tax regime of the example project
Expected inflation in dollars ff
3% a year
Solution
  1. Cost of debt after tax: rd(1−T)=8⋅(1−0.2)=6.4r_d(1 - T) = 8\cdot(1 - 0.2) = 6.4%.
  2. WACC: 0.7⋅16+0.3⋅6.40.7\cdot 16 + 0.3\cdot 6.4 =11.2+1.92= 11.2 + 1.92 =13.12= 13.12%. The rate is nominal, because market rates include the expected inflation. Without the tax saving on interest it would be 13.6%.
  3. Real WACC: 1.1312/1.03−1=9.831.1312/1.03 - 1 = 9.83%. The shortcut “nominal minus inflation” would give 10.12%.
Answer: WACC ≈ 13.12% in nominal terms and ≈ 9.83% in real terms.

What it means. The cash flow of the example project of this library is in constant prices, so a real rate suits it. A company with this cost of capital can round it to 10% and take it as the real rate for projects of ordinary risk. This is the rate that the lessons Net present value (NPV) and Internal rate of return (IRR) use. A project with a positive NPV at 10% earns more than the money costs. The data in this example are assumed for illustration.

Opportunity cost and risk

The cost of capital is the lower limit of the rate. A project that earns exactly WACC adds nothing to the wealth of the owners, but takes nothing away. A rate equal to the cost of capital lets through every project that at least earns the price of its money. If money, people and equipment were unlimited, this would be enough. In reality resources are short, and accepting a weak project means turning down a stronger one.

Then the opportunity cost of capital fits better. It is the return of the best project that has to be given up. Discounting at this rate compares the project with the alternative right away: NPV > 0 means that the project is better, and NPV < 0 means that it is worse. But this value is unstable. The set of available projects, the oil prices and the project estimates keep changing. So the opportunity cost is used as a guide when the hurdle rate is set. It is not recalculated for every decision.

Risk. An investor accepts more risk only for a higher expected return. The starting point is the risk-free rate: the return on government bonds of a reliable borrower in the same currency. For flows in dollars, we usually take the bonds of the US government. Everything that investors ask for above this rate is a risk premium. We measure risk by the spread of the possible results of the investment. The spread is often expressed as the standard deviation of the return (a number that shows how widely the results scatter around the average). The wider the range of outcomes, the higher the premium. That is why investors accept a lower return on the bonds of an oil company than on its shares: a bondholder gets the money earlier than a shareholder, and with more certainty.

It matters which risk the rate should cover. Part of the risk is common to the whole economy and the whole industry: the oil price, demand, interest rates, taxes. It cannot be removed by combining many projects, and investors ask for a premium for it. Another part belongs to the single project: whether the reserves will be confirmed, what the platform will cost, whether an exploration well turns out dry. In a large portfolio (many projects held together), such deviations largely cancel each other. So in theory we take them into account not with a premium on the rate, but with probabilities and scenarios (Expected monetary value and preference theory, Geological and technical uncertainty of a project). In practice, companies often add premiums for such risks too. So it is important to understand what a premium does to the cash flow (see the section on the hurdle rate).

The hurdle rate: how companies set the rate

None of the ingredients of the rate can be measured once and for all. Interest rates and exchange rates change, the expectations of shareholders follow the oil price, and the set of projects is renewed. So companies do not work out a “true” rate for every decision. They set a hurdle rate: the lowest return that they accept. It is the same for similar projects, and it is reviewed, for example, once a year.

  • One rate for the whole company. Usually it is not lower than WACC, and often it is set higher, to leave a margin. There is not enough money and there are not enough specialists for all projects, and project estimates are on average too optimistic. A single rate is simple and makes projects comparable.
  • Rates by risk class. These are separate rates or premiums for countries, for exploration and for development, and for new technology. One rate for projects of very different risk distorts the picture: risky projects look better than they are, and safe ones look worse.
  • Prescribed rates. To make reports comparable, rules sometimes set the rate. In the US reporting of proved reserves (the volumes that can be recovered with high confidence), the future cash flows are discounted at a fixed rate of 10%. Hence the name common in the industry, PV-10 (the present value at 10%). It is an agreed rule for comparing companies, not the cost of capital of any particular company.
  • Calculation at several rates. Even when a rate has been approved, it is useful to show the NPV at several values, for example 8, 10, 12 and 15%. Then you can see how much the decision depends on this assumption.

A risk premium on the rate looks like a simple and cautious decision. But it acts not on the risk but on time. A flow tt years ahead is reduced by a factor of ((1+i+Δ)/(1+i))t\left((1 + i + \Delta)/(1 + i)\right)^{t}, where Δ\Delta is the premium. Near flows hardly suffer, and distant flows suffer a lot, however uncertain they really are.

Share of the present value of a flow that remains after a premium on a rate of 10%0510152025300.00.20.40.60.81.0Time to the flow t, yearsFactor+2 pp+5 pp+10 pp0.67

Three falling curves of the factor, from 0 to 1, against the time to the flow, from 0 to 30 years. The curve for a premium of 2 percentage points falls to 0.84 after 10 years and to 0.58 after 30 years. For 5 points it falls to 0.64 and 0.26, and for 10 points to 0.42 and 0.07. A point of 0.67 at 9 years is marked on the 5-point curve.

CalculatedThe share of the present value of a flow that remains after a premium is added to a rate of 10% (pp stands for percentage points). At +5 pp, a flow 10 years ahead loses more than a third of its value, and a flow 30 years ahead loses almost three quarters. The dot is the abandonment of the project in the example below (t=9t = 9).
Worked exampleA risk premium and late costs
Given (assumed data)
Project
from the lesson Project cash flow: flows in the middle of each year, origin in the middle of year 1 (t=0…9t = 0 \ldots 9)
Base real rate
10%
Risk premium
5 percentage points, so 15% in total
Solution
  1. The premium multiplies the present value of a flow that comes tt years after the origin by (1.10/1.15)t(1.10/1.15)^{t}. For year 4 (t=3t = 3) this factor is 0.875, and for year 10 (t=9t = 9) it is 0.670.
  2. The flow of year 4 loses 12.5% of its present value. The abandonment costs in year 10 lose 33%: their present value falls from 5.09 to 3.41 million dollars (the cost is 12 million dollars in year 10).
  3. The NPV of the project is 100.1 million dollars at 10% and 64.4 million dollars at 15%.
Answer: The premium cut the NPV by 36% and at the same time made the future abandonment “cheaper” by 33%.

What it means. For income, a premium roughly resembles an allowance for risk. For late costs it works the other way round: the higher the rate, the less the obligation weighs, although in reality it may turn out more expensive than expected. So it is safer to include the risks of separate events (reserves, abandonment costs, the success of a well) through probabilities and scenarios. Add a premium to the rate only on purpose, and never to count a second time what the cash flow already contains. The data in this example are assumed for illustration.

How much the NPV depends on the rate

The present value of a flow tt years ahead is proportional to (1+i)−t(1+i)^{-t}. So when the rate changes a little, the present value changes by a fraction of about −t Δi/(1+i)-t\,\Delta i/(1+i). This fraction grows with the time to the flow. Long projects with late income lose much more from a rise in the rate than quick projects that pay back in a year or two. Examples of long projects are gas fields with a long production plateau (a period of steady, high output) and projects that recover a larger share of the oil (enhanced oil recovery).

Worked exampleNPV of the example project at different rates
Given (assumed data)
Net cash flow in years 1–10
−50.0; −90.0; 32.8; 78.4; 78.4; 65.6; 52.8; 33.6; 20.8; −12.0 US$ million (constant prices)
Origin
the middle of year 1, flows in the middle of each year
Rates
8, 10, 12 and 15% (real)
Solution
  1. The sums of the discounted flows (how NPV is calculated): at 8% it is 117.4, at 10% it is 100.1, at 12% it is 84.7, and at 15% it is 64.4 million dollars.
  2. Relative to 10%: lowering the rate by 2 percentage points raises the NPV by 17%. Raising it by 2 points lowers the NPV by 15%, and raising it by 5 points lowers it by 36%.
  3. The slope of the NPV profile (the curve of NPV against the rate) at 10%:  dNPV/ di\dd\mathrm{NPV}/\dd i =−∑tt NCFt (1+i)−t−1= -\sum_t t\,\mathrm{NCF}_t\,(1+i)^{-t-1} =−817= -817 million dollars per unit of the rate. That is about 8.2 million dollars for each percentage point.
Answer: Each percentage point of the rate near 10% costs the project about 8.2 million dollars of NPV, which is about 8% of its size.

What it means. For the decision “accept or reject”, this project is not sensitive to the rate: the NPV stays positive up to a rate of about 29.6% (the IRR). But suppose projects are compared by the size of their NPV, or the rate is close to the IRR. Then an error in the rate of 2–3 percentage points can change the conclusion. The data in this example are assumed for illustration.

The rate also changes the order of the options. The lesson Internal rate of return (IRR) compares two ways to restore the production of a well: hydraulic fracturing (A) and a sidetrack (B). Hydraulic fracturing cracks the rock around the well to help oil flow. A sidetrack is a new branch drilled from the existing well. At 10%, B has the larger NPV: 1.70 against 1.03 million dollars. At 15%, A wins: 0.73 against 0.59 million dollars. The profiles cross at about 14.1%. A high rate favours fast options that pay early, and a low rate favours long ones.

The rate must match the cash flow

The rate and the cash flow come as a pair. One project can be valued in different consistent ways, but you cannot take the cash flow from one way and the rate from another.

Which rate to apply to which cash flow
Cash flow
in constant prices of the base year
Rate
real: (1+i)/(1+f)−1(1 + i)/(1 + f) - 1 (Inflation: nominal and real money)
Cash flow
in nominal money
Rate
nominal; market rates and WACC are usually nominal
Cash flow
project flow after tax, without loans, interest and repayments
Rate
WACC after tax: the cost of debt and the tax saving on interest are in the rate
Cash flow
shareholders' flow: with the loans received, after interest and repayments
Rate
cost of equity
Cash flow
in dollars or in tenge (KZT, the currency of Kazakhstan)
Rate
a rate in the same currency; the tenge rate is usually higher because it contains more expected inflation
Cash flow
yearly or monthly amounts
Rate
effective annual rate (the rate that really applies over one year), or the monthly rate (1+i)1/12−1(1+i)^{1/12} - 1 (Interest and compounding)

Both ways, the project flow at WACC and the shareholders' flow at the cost of equity, lead to close conclusions when the assumptions agree. Do not mix them.

Terms and symbols

Discount rate
The rate at which future flows are brought back to the valuation date. It is the lowest return required from an investment of a given risk.
Cost of capital
The return that lenders and shareholders expect. For the company as a whole, it is WACC.
WACC
The weighted average of the cost of equity and the cost of debt, with the cost of debt taken after tax.
Cost of equity rer_e
The return that shareholders expect. It is estimated, for example, by the CAPM model.
Cost of debt rdr_d
The rate at which the company can borrow money now, with fees included.
Opportunity cost of capital
The return of the best option that is given up when this project is chosen.
Risk-free rate rfr_f
The return on reliable government bonds in the same currency. It is the base for the risk premium.
Hurdle rate
The lowest acceptable return that a company sets for its projects.
Percentage point (pp)
The difference between two rates stated as percentages. Going from 10% to 12% is a rise of 2 pp, or of 20%.

Common mistakes and misconceptions

Wrong

“It is cheaper to finance a project with our own money than with a loan: we pay no interest on it.”

In fact

Equity costs more than debt. Shareholders carry more risk than lenders and expect a return above the rate on loans. Retained earnings cost as much as the shareholders could earn on them elsewhere.

Wrong

“Let us take the rate on our loan, 8%.”

In fact

The rate on a loan is only the cost of debt. The discount rate reflects the cost of all the capital, including the more expensive equity, and the risk of the project.

Wrong

“The higher the rate, the more cautious the valuation.”

In fact

A high rate understates the value of long projects and the present value of late costs, such as abandonment. Caution in one place turns into optimism in another. It is better to take risk into account openly.

Wrong

“We discount a flow in constant prices at a WACC of 13%.”

In fact

A WACC calculated from market rates is nominal. For constant prices it is converted into a real rate. At inflation of 3% this is 1.13/1.03−1≈9.71.13/1.03 - 1 \approx 9.7%.

Wrong

“The project is strategic, so let us take a lower rate.”

In fact

The rate reflects the price of money and the risk, not the importance of the project. Strategic benefits are put into the cash flow or discussed separately. A rate that is set too low only hides that the project does not earn the cost of capital.

In depth: advanced detail

How the cost of equity is estimated: the CAPM model

The cost of equity cannot be read from a contract, as the rate on a loan can. It has to be estimated. The most common way is the capital asset pricing model (CAPM). It starts from the idea that an investor who holds a wide set of shares asks for a premium only for the risk that cannot be removed by diversification (spreading money over many different investments). This is the risk that comes from how closely a share follows the swings of the market as a whole.

Capital asset pricing model (CAPM)
re=rf+β (rm−rf)r_e = r_f + \beta\,(r_m - r_f)
where:
  • rer_ecost of equity, fraction per year
  • rfr_frisk-free rate: the return on reliable government bonds in the same currency, fraction per year
  • rm−rfr_m - r_fmarket risk premium: how much the return of the stock market exceeds the risk-free return on average, fraction per year
  • β\betabeta coefficient: how strongly the return on the shares of the company follows the market (β=1\beta = 1 means like the market, β>1\beta > 1 means more strongly than the market), —

Units: fractions per year; all rates in one currency

Holds when
  • Investors are diversified and ask for a premium only for market risk.
  • Beta is estimated from the share price history of the company or of similar companies, and the premium from the long-term history of the market. Both estimates are imprecise.
  • For emerging markets, a country risk premium is often added to the result. This is a practical addition, not a part of the original model.

The more closely the income of a company follows the economy as a whole, the higher its beta and the more expensive its equity. The specific risks of a project are not in this formula. We take them into account in the cash flow.

Worked exampleCost of equity by CAPM
Given (assumed data)
Risk-free rate rfr_f
4.5% (in dollars)
Beta coefficient β\beta
1.2
Market premium rm−rfr_m - r_f
5.5%
Country premium
5%
Solution
  1. By CAPM: re=4.5+1.2⋅5.5=11.1r_e = 4.5 + 1.2\cdot 5.5 = 11.1%.
  2. With the country premium: 11.1+5=16.111.1 + 5 = 16.1%. This is of the same order as the value used in the WACC example.
Answer: The cost of equity is about 16.1% in dollars.

What it means. Each of these numbers is estimated with a large error, and reasonable assumptions easily give a spread of several percentage points. The cost of equity is an estimate, not a measurement. Check it against the returns of similar companies. The data in this example are assumed for illustration.

A premium on the rate and the certainty equivalent

A premium on the rate can be converted into a reducing factor that is applied to the cash flow itself. Discounting the expected flow of year tt at the rate ii with a risk premium is the same as multiplying it by a factor ata_t and discounting at the risk-free rate:

Certainty equivalent factor
at=(1+rf1+i)ta_t = \left(\frac{1 + r_f}{1 + i}\right)^{t}
where:
  • ata_tthe share of the expected flow of year tt that the investor regards as equal to a guaranteed sum (the certainty equivalent), —
  • rfr_frisk-free rate, fraction per year
  • iidiscount rate with a risk premium, fraction per year
  • tttime from the valuation date to the flow, years

Units: dimensionless; the rates are fractions per year

Holds when
  • The rate with the premium is constant in time.
  • Both rates are of the same kind, nominal or real, and in the same currency.
  • The flow is the expected (average) value, not an optimistic case.

A constant premium means that the share of the flow that counts as equal to a guaranteed sum falls by the same fraction every year. This is a geometric progression: each year's factor is the previous one multiplied by the same number. The further away the flow, the bigger the discount for risk. With rf=4r_f = 4% and i=10i = 10%, the factor is 0.95 after one year, 0.57 after 10 years and 0.25 after 25 years. For the oil price, whose uncertainty really does grow with time, this is an acceptable approximation. For a risk that is resolved at the start of a project, for example when the first wells are drilled, it is not.

From this comes a second way to take risk into account. Reduce the expected flows themselves to certainty equivalents, taking probabilities and scenarios into account, and discount them at a rate that reflects only the cost of money. This is more complex, but it shows which risk is counted and in which year, and it does not make late costs “cheaper”.

Connections to other topics

Check yourself

  1. 1

    A company is financed 60% by equity costing 15% and 40% by debt at 7%. The income tax rate is 20%. What is the WACC?

    1. A.11.24%
    2. B.11.8%
    3. C.9.0%
    4. D.11.0%
    Show the answer

    Correct answer: A. 11.24%

    0.6⋅15+0.4⋅7⋅(1−0.2)0.6\cdot 15 + 0.4\cdot 7\cdot(1 - 0.2) =9.0+2.24=11.24= 9.0 + 2.24 = 11.24%. You get 11.8% if you forget the tax saving on interest. 11.0% is the simple average of the two rates without weights. 9.0% is only the contribution of equity.

  2. 2

    The WACC of a company is 13% (nominal), and the expected inflation is 3% a year. At what rate should a flow in constant prices be discounted?

    1. A.16.4%
    2. B.10%
    3. C.9.7%
    4. D.13%
    Show the answer

    Correct answer: C. 9.7%

    The real rate is 1.13/1.03−1=0.0971.13/1.03 - 1 = 0.097, that is 9.7%. 10% is the shortcut “nominal minus inflation”. 16.4% is the error in the opposite direction: 1.13⋅1.03−11.13\cdot 1.03 - 1.

  3. 3

    The discount rate was raised from 10% to 15%. Which project loses the most NPV in percentage terms?

    1. A.The same: there is one rate for all projects
    2. B.An infill well (an extra well between existing wells): money spent now, income within two years
    3. C.A gas field with a production plateau of 20 years
    Show the answer

    Correct answer: C. A gas field with a production plateau of 20 years

    The relative fall in the present value of a flow is roughly proportional to the time until it. The income of the gas field is spread over decades, so the rise in the rate “eats” a much larger share of its NPV than of the NPV of a quick well.

  4. 4

    To cover the risk that the abandonment of a platform may cost more, an analyst suggests raising the discount rate of the project by 3 percentage points. What is wrong with this?

    Show the answer

    Abandonment is a late outflow. A higher rate reduces its present value, that is, it makes the obligation “cheaper”, although the risk of a higher cost calls for the opposite. We take such a risk into account in the cash flow itself: take the expected abandonment cost with the probability of a rise in cost, or calculate scenarios.

  5. 5

    Why are the retained earnings of past years not free for a company?

    Show the answer

    They belong to the shareholders. They could have been paid out as dividends, and the shareholders would have put the money elsewhere at a comparable risk. The return that they lose is the opportunity cost of this money, that is, the cost of equity. A project that earns less makes the shareholders poorer.

  6. 6

    An engineer subtracted loan interest from the cash flow of a project and discounted the result at the WACC of the company. What is the error, and how is it corrected?

    Show the answer

    WACC already includes the cost of debt (after tax). So the cost of money is counted twice, in the flow and in the rate, and the NPV is too low. The right way is to calculate the project flow without loans, interest and repayments and discount it at WACC. Or calculate the shareholders' flow (with loans, interest and repayments) and discount it at the cost of equity.

Updated: 19 October 2026